Đáp án đề thi vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2014 - THPT chuyên Nam Định

 ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2014 - THPT CHUYÊN NAM ĐỊNH

PART A. PHONETICS (1.0 point)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. There is an example at the beginning (0). (0.5p)

1. A. multiply                 B. simply                   C. imply                      D. purify

2. A. define                    B. decline                  C. determine              D. mine

3. A.honest                    B. history                   C.hour                       D.honour

4. A. wood                     B. good                     C. food                      D. childhood

5. A. worked                  B. placed                   C. wicked                    D. missed

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.  Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. There is an example at the beginning (0). (0.5p)

1. A. provide                B. combine                 C. service                       D. account

2. A. electric                 B. dependent          C. deposit                          D. different

3. A. imagine               B. protection            C. develop                        D. company

4. A. documentary        B. occupation           C. competitive                  D. individual

5. A. embarrassing       B. experiment         C. artificial                      D. experience 

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3.0 points)

I. Choose the best word or phrase to complete the following sentences. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0p)

1.The girl ______ over there is my best friend.

A. stood                    B. standing                  C. stands                D. who standing

2.My sister has a hat ______ yours. She bought it in Hanoi.

A. as                       B. like                        C. such as                   D. same as

3.The invention of labor-saving devices for the home made ______ for women to pursue a career and to enjoy their social life.

A. possible              B. it possible             C. possible it                D. it impossible

4.______ you say, I won’t believe you anymore.

A. However                    B. How                     C. What                      D. Whatever

5.While some people find advertising very helpful, ______ think it is a waste of time and money.

A. some other               B. others                   C. other                D. others people

6.No longer ______ their parents allow them to go to the music club.

A. X (nothing)                   B. does                       C. do                          D. have

7.I regret ______ that the sight-seeing tour has been cancelled because of the bad weather

A. to tell you              B. telling you               C. to say you              D. saying you

8.The harder you try, ______ results you get.

A. the better                 B. better                  C. more better               D. the best

9.______ students study very hard before the examination.

A. Most of the              B. Most of                  C. Most the                   D. Almost

10.If it ______ for her carelessness, she could have passed the driving test.

 A. had been           B. hadn’t been             C. were not            D. would have been

II. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters to complete the sentence. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0p) 

     0. She has been a stamp                    collector                 for ten years.                     (COLLECT)

1. There is a _________________________of fruits in Vietnam. (VARY)
2. The company has had a _________________________ in sales. (REDUCE)
3. Her boss accused her of being over _________________________. (AMBITION)
4. She was the first TV _________________________ that he had met in the flesh. (CELEBRATE)
5. His _________________________ knowledge is very poor. He thinks Paris is in Italy. (GEOGRAPHY)
6. Even if you’re good at a game, you shouldn’t be _________________________. (CONFIDENT)
7. In some places the weather changes so quickly that it’s very _______________________. (PREDICT)
8. We always have a spare room in case visitors arrive ________________________. (EXPECT)
9. Reducing levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is of __________________ importance. (CRITIC)
10. There are some __________________ who want a new law forcing men to do their share. (POLITICS)

III. Choose one given phrasal verb to complete each sentence. You may have to change the verb form but cannot use one phrasal verb twice. Write your answers in the spaces provided. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0p)

look after              slow down            look down on       make out              call in                     draw up

try on                     ring off                   put aside               sit up                      settle on

      0. Can you              look after                  our dog while we’re away on holiday?

1. His condition is worse than before. I think we should _____________________ a doctor.
2. A red car has just _____________________ in front of our house. Are we expecting anyone?
3. Don’t _____________________ Peter just because he’s not as good at the job as you are.
4. Could you _____________________, please. I don’t like driving so fast on country roads.
5. The name on the cheque is wrong. The cheque is ____________________ to your brother, not to you.
6. I wonder if this dress fits. I’ll ________________it__________ and see.
7. I’m sorry, but I’ll have to _____________________ now. Someone has just come into the office.
8. Don’t spend the money you won. Why don’t you ___________it________ to buy what you really want?
9. There was an excellent film on television late last night. We _______________________to watch it.
10. We couldn’t decide whether to book a holiday in Spain or Italy. We finally _________________ Spain.

PART C. READING (3.0 points)

I. Read the text below and answer the questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided (you can give short but enough information answers). (1.2p)

I had been chosen by my teacher to attend a leadership training course which would be held at the Girls’ Brigade campsite. As I stepped into the campsite at Sembawang, I saw the ropes that were fastened from tree to tree and some structures built for climbing. “I hope I don’t have to climb up all those trees,” I said to myself. I suffered from acrophobia.

After Debbie and I had settled into our dormitory, we went for the briefing. The camp commandant told us that we need not worry about climbing the awesome structures as she and the other officers were there to help us. “To be a good leader, you must lead by example and be brave,” the commandant said.

The day came when all of us had to climb up the structures. “This is the moment of my life,” I told myself. It was a sunny afternoon as I stood under the tree and told myself I would be able to do it.

Debbie was among the brave ones who volunteered to climb up the man-made ladder to the top of the tree where the ropes were. The task was to walk across to the middle of the ropes supported by the two trees and jump down. Although we had support ropes around our bodies, I was still afraid and tried very hard to overcome my fear of heights.

My heart pumped so hard while waiting for my turn. When it was finally my turn, I climbed up the ladder with legs shaking. The higher I climbed, the faster my heart beat. Finally, I reached the top and took a deep breath. “Phew, that was easy,” I told myself. Then I looked down. “I think I am going to faint,” I thought.

I could not think for the next few seconds. I shook my head and asked myself, “How am I going to show the people in the Girls’ Brigade that I am a good leader if I have no courage?”

From the top of the tree, I could see the entire campsite as well as the officiers and the other participants. I hummed a tune. Then I held on top the ropes tightly and began to move one step at a time towards the centre. I was enjoying the view around me. “This is fun after all!” I thought.

Then I heard cheers and claps from below. I realized that I had made it to the centre. I closed my eyes and jumped. I landed on the ground swiftly. It felt good to be on the ground again although my legs were still shaking. At the same time, there was a feeling of triumph.              

(Source: From SAM assessment paper specialist - Singapore)

1. Where specifically was the training camp held?……………………………………………………………………………………………...………………………….
2. What does the word ‘acrophobia’ in paragraph 1 mean?……………………………………………………………………………………………...………………………….
3. Which word in the first paragraph has the same meaning as ‘secured tightly’?

          ……………………………………………………………………………………………...………………………….

     4. Why do you think the writer was chosen by the teacher to attend the camp?              ……………………………………………………………………………………………...………………………….

     5. What was it that the writer did not want the Girls’ Brigade to think of her?                  ……………………………………………………………………………………………...………………………….

     6. Write down the sentence which tells you that the writer’s fellow participants                were very supportive.

        ……………………………………………………………………………………………...………………………….

II. Read an article about the Sahara Desert. Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-G the one which fits each gap. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (0) is an example. (1.0p)

The Sahara’s meager resources are being plundered right to the present day. This is shown most clearly in the dramatic fall in the region’s precious water reserves. The rock is of a type which hinders easy underground storage so the water supply depends on rainfall. (0)        B      . However, the seriousness of the situation goes far beyond mere seasonal changes.

There’s one district where observations go back at least 125 years. Here it is known that wells of the balance beam type were once used in cultivated areas. This way of drawing water is intended for the irrigation of gardens and small plots and works only if there’s water not more than about five metres below the surface.

(1) ______. They have all been replaced by wells from which the water has to be raised by draught animals, because it is now 25 metres down. (2) ______.

In a classic example of a vicious circle, shortage of water has led to the digging of more wells to save the flocks and birds. As these have been deepened the water supply has been further depleted. (3) ______.

The Air region was once regarded as the Switzerland of Africa because of its temperate climate. (4) ______. Nowadays, though, there are only a third of the palms which existed there at the turn of the century. The amount of wildlife has shown a proportionate fall. (5) ______. This is highly dangerous in a world where the overall population is growing rapidly. We cannot afford to lose fertile land.

A. So, too, has the number of human beings who can now survive in the area.

B. This being so, it is easy to understand why it varies.

C. Today, though, not one well of this type exists.

D. This has resulted in soil erosion which then dries out the land still further.

E. Here, then, the water level has evidently dropped by 20 metres in little over a century.

F. It was criss-crossed by valleys filled with palm trees and was thronged with wildlife.

G. Such are conditions in the Sahara Desert in recent times.

III. Read the passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the spaces provided. There is an example at the beginning (0). (0.8p)

Malaysia Airlines Flight 370 (MH370/MAS370) was (0)            a          scheduled international passenger flight from Kuala Lumpur to Beijing that lost (1) _______________ with air traffic control on 8 March 2014 at 01:20 MYT, less than an hour after takeoff. At 07:24, Malaysia Airlines (MAS) reported the flight missing. The aircraft, a Boeing 777-200ER, was carrying 12 Malaysian crew members and 227 (2) _______________ from 14 nations. There has been no confirmation of any flight debris and no crash site has been found.

A multinational search and rescue effort, later reported as the largest and most expensive in history, began in the Gulf of Thailand and the East Sea. Within a few days, the search was extended (3) _______________ the Strait of Malacca and Andaman Sea. On 15 March, (4) _______________ on military radar data and radio "pings" between the aircraft and an Inmarsat satellite, investigators concluded that the aircraft had diverted from its intended course and headed west across the Malay Peninsula, then continued on a northern or southern track (5) _______________ around seven hours. The search in the East Sea was abandoned. Three days later, the Australian Maritime Safety Authority began searching the southern part of the Indian Ocean.

On 24 March, the Malaysian government confirmed independent analyses by the British Air Accidents Investigation Branch (AAIB) and Inmarsat, and announced that search efforts would be (6) __________________ on the Australian-led area. In the first two weeks of April, aircrafts and ships deployed equipment to listen for signals from the underwater locator beacons attached to the aircraft's "(7) _______________ box" flight recorders. Four unconfirmed signals (8) _______________ detected between 6 and 8 April but after that time the batteries of the beacons were believed to have become exhausted. The search continued in the area of the signals, using a robotic submarine, until 28 May, without evidence of debris being found.

(Source: From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia)

PART D. WRITING (3.0 points) 

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in bold at the end. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0). (2.0p)

0. ‘Are you a member of the committee?’ The receptionist said to me. belonged

=>The receptionist asked                me if I belonged to                the committee.

1. This is the most amusing novel I’ve ever read. amusing

=>I’ve never read a ................................................................................................................ one before.

2.As soon as I have any more news, I’ll phone you. moment

=> I’ll give…………………………………………..………………………..………I have any more news.

3. The previous manager wasn’t running the restaurant well, so he was replaced. badly

=>The restaurant.................................................................................... the previous manager, so he was replaced.

4. You got lost because you didn’t do what I told you. instructions

=>If..........................................................................................................., you wouldn’t have got lost.

5. I’d lost his phone number so I couldn’t contact him before. touch

=> I couldn’t…………………………………………………..….………before because I’d lost his phone number.

6. She really didn’t want to upset him so she kept quiet. avoid

=>She was anxious………………………………….…………….………………………him so she kept quiet.

7. I’ve arranged a trip around Europe next year. arrangements

=> I’ve………………………………………………………..….………………on a trip around Europe next year.

8. He seems not to care about anything. matters

=> He acts…………………………………………………….……..………………………to him.

9. This train should have left an hour ago. meant

=> This train………………………………………………….…….…………………………off an hour ago.

10. We had a long discussion about the problem but we couldn’t solve it. length

=>  We discussed……………………………………………..……………………………but we couldn’t solve it.

II. Topic writing. (1.0 p)

                Different people have different ways to express their love for their country. As a student, what are you going to do to show your love for your country, especially when there are foreign invaders? Give reasons for your actions.  Your writing should be between 120 and 150 words.

Nhận ngay điểm thi vào lớp 10 tỉnh Nam Định năm 2014 nhanh nhất, soạn tin:

THI (dấu cách) namdinh (dấu cách) SBD gửi 8712

*Lưu ý: Tên tỉnh viết liền, không dấu

VD: Để tra cứu điểm thi vào lớp 10 năm 2014 của thí sinh có SBD 270991 thi tại Nam Định

Soạn tin: THI namdinh 270991gửi 8712

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2014 - THPT CHUYÊN NAM ĐỊNH 

PART A. PHONETICS (1.0 point)

I. Pronunciation. (0.5p) à0.1 point for each correct answer

1B                        2C                        3B                        4C                          5C

II. Stress. (0.5p) à 0.1 point for each correct answer

1C                       2D                         3D                        4C                         5C

 PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3.0 points)

I. MCQ. (1.0 p)  

1B                2B              3B              4D              5B              6C           7A           8A           9A           10B

II. Word form. (1.0p) à0.1 point for each correct answer

1. variety                  2. reduction              3. ambitious            4. celebrity           

5. geographical         6. overconfident          7. unpredictable        8. unexpectedly  

9.critical                 10. politicians                      

III. Phrasal verbs. (1.0 p) à 0.1 point for each correct answer

1. call in              2. drawn up              3. look down on               4. slow down        

5. made out         6. try it on                7. ring off                    8. put it aside       

9. sat up              10. settled on

PART C. READING (3.0 points)

I. Reading comprehension. (1.2 p) à 0.2 point for each correct answer

1. (It/ The training camp was held) at the Girls’ Brigade Campsite (at Sembawang).
2. (It means) fear of heights.
3. (It is) fastened/ The word “fastened”/ Fastened does/has the same meaning as “secured tightly”.
4. Because she showed/had the potential/ability to become/be a good leader.
5. She didn’t want the Girls’ Brigade to think that she was not a good leader (because/and she had no courage).
6. The sentence “Then I heard cheers and claps from below”.

(Học sinh có thể diễn đạt theo cách khác nhưng phải đúng, đủ ý và đúng ngữ pháp chính tả mới cho điểm tối đa)

II. Matching. (1.0 p) à 0.2 point for each correct answer

1C           2E           3D           4F           5A          

III. Gap fill. (0.8 p) à 0.1 point for each correct answer

  1. contact/touch               2. passengers                  3. to                     4. based                  

 5. for                6. concentrated/focused               7. black                   8. were 

PART D. WRITING (3.0 points)

I. Sentence transformation. (2.0 p) à 0.2 point for each correct answer

1. more amusing novel than this/ novel as amusing as this
2. you a ring/call the moment
3. was being badly run by/ was being run badly by
4. you had followed my instructions
5. keep/get in touch with him
6. to avoid upsetting
7. made arrangements to go
8. as if/though nothing matters
9. was meant to set/move/have set/have moved
10. the problem at length

II. Topic writing. (1.0 p)

Marking scheme

The impression mark is based on the following scheme:

-       Format. (0.1 point): the writing has 3 parts: the Introduction, the body (01 or more para) and the conclusion.

-       Content. (0.5 point): a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the ideas.

-       Language. (0.2 point): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of secondary gifted students

-       Presentation. (0.2 point): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of secondary gifted students.

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Theo Dethi.Violet