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1. Which of the following places was known as a centre of learning in ancient India? (1) Nalanda (2) Ujjain (3) Allahabad (4) None of these 2. The process of transfer of heat by matter but without actual movement of the particles themselves is (1) Conduction (2) convection (3) radiation (4) None of these 3. Only zero and one are used for operating (1) Calculator (2) Computer (3) Abacus (4) Typewriter 4. Transistor is (1) semi-conductor (2) inductor (3) modulator (4) demodulator 5. Computer cannot (1) send message (2) abstract thought (3) read files (4) play music 6. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? (1) Wax (2) Starch (3) Sucrose (4) Maltose 7. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness? (1) Vit. B (2) Vit. C (3) Vit. A (4) Vit. E 8. Which of the following is the vaccine for tuberculosis? (1) OPT (2) BCG (3) Salk vaccine (4) Rubella vaccine 9. Horns, nails and hair are (1) soluble fats (2) insoluble carbohydrates (3) keratin proteins (4) complex lipids 10. Who conducts the State Assembly Elections? (1) Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. (2) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (3) Chief Election Commissioner (4) Governor of the State concerned 11. Which is an ore of aluminum? (1) Chromite (2) Cuprite (3) Bauxite (4) Siderite 12. Kalidas was (1) a poet during the Gupta period. (2) A dramatist during Harshvardhana’s reign. (3) An astronomer during Gupta period. (4) None of these 13. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles? (1) Plain (2) Convex (3) Concave (4) Spherical 14. The compilation Meri Ekyawan Kavitayen is by (1) A.N. Vajpayee (2) Harivanshrai Bachchan (3) Dharam Vir Bharti (4) Shiv Mangal Singh Suman 15. ‘Equinox’ means (1) days are longer than nights. (2) Days and nights are equal. (3) Days are shorter than nights (4) none of these 16. Who was known as “Nightingale of India”? (1) Vijaylaxmi Pandit (2) Sarojini Naidu (3) Suraiya (4) None of these 17. Gaya is associated with Lord Buddha, where he (1) was born (2) attained enlightenment (3) died (4) delivered his first sermon 18. Chemical change does not take place in (1) souring of milk into curd (2) rusting of iron in atmosphere (3) burning of magnesium ribbon in air (4) emitting of light by a red hot platinum wire 19. Who is the highest wicket-taker in Indian Cricket team? (1) Javagal Srinath (2) Anil Kumble (3) Maninder Singh (4) Kapil Dev 20. Which country leads in production of aluminum and aluminum goods? (1) Austriala (2) The US (3) Russia (4) Japan 21. The Nathu La Pass, which has increased Indian trade with a neighbour, lies between India and which country? (1) Pakistan (2) Bhutan (3) Nepal (4) China (5) Tibet 22. The Banking Codes and Standards Boards has been formed to provide fair treatment to: (1) Employees’ Unions (2) Member Banks (3) Officers (4) SBI (5) Customers 23. In India, the CRR at present is approximately: (1) less than 5% (2) 10% to 15% (3) 5% to 10% (4) 20% (5) 35% 24. The present salary of an MP is (Rs per month) (1) 2,500 (2) 5,000 (3) 7,500 (4) 15,000 (5) 16,000 25. Which river was recently found to be the longest? (1) Amazon (2) Nile (3) Mississippi (4) Ganga (5) Yangtze Kiang 26. The highest Indian mountain-peak is: (1) Mt Everest (2) Nanga Parbat (3) Dhaulagiri (4) Godwin Austin (5) Annapurna 27. Basel II norms will lead to: (1) Capital A/c convertibility (2) Better Stock Exchanges (3) Better CRR (4) Increased savings (5) None of these 28. Rice is which kind of crop? (1) Rabi (2) Evergreen (3) Kharif (4) Inter-seasonal (5) Monsoon 29. ‘Jog falls’ are in: (1) Kerala (2) J & K (3) U.P. (4) Uttaranchal (5) Karnataka 30. The capitals of the new States Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttaranchal are: (1) Raipur, Ranchi, Dehradun (2) Ranchi, Patna, Nainital (3) Raniganj, Patna, Dehradun (4) Patna, Raipur, Nainital (5) None of the above ANSWER KEY 1) (1), 2) (1), 3) (2), 4) (1), 5) (2), 6) (1), 7) (3), 8) (2), 9) (3), 10) (3) 11) (3), 12) (1), 13) (2), 14) (1), 15) (2), 16) (2), 17) (2), 18) (4), 19) (2), 20) (2) State Bank of India (SBI) Management Executive Recruitment Exam. 1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as (A) World Bank (B) Asian Development Bank (C) IMF (D) It is known by its name 2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established? (A) 1935 (B) 1920 (C) 1928 (D) 1947 3. Which is the largest commercial bank (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) ICICI Bank (D) Bank of India 4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Imperial Bank of India (C) Bank of India (D) Union Bank of India 5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans? (A) Asian Development Bank (B) IMF (C) International Developmental Association (D) International Finance Corporation 6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries? (A) Asian Development Bank (B) IMF (C) International Developmental Association (D) International Finance Corporation 7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’? (A) Adam Smith (B) Chanakya (C) Machiavelli (D) None of these 8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card? (A) State Bank of India (B) Central Bank of India (C) Union Bank of India (D) ICICI 9. What does devaluation of a currency mean? (A) decrease in the internal value of money (B) decrease in the external value of money (C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money (D) none of these 10.Which of the following is known as plastic money? (A) bearer cheques (B) credit cards (C) demand drafts (D) gift cheques 11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour? (A) The length of time involved in the buying process (B) The potential impact of a product on an individual’s self-identity (C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit (D) The complexity of an order 12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process? (A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation (B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation (C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation (D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation 13. Needs differ from wants because: (A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs (B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying (C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future (D) Needs and wants are exactly the same 14. Which of the following levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with (A) Self-actualization (B) Love (C) Security (D) Physiological 15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form? (A) The choice set (B) The awareness set (C) The total set (D) The pre-evaluation set 16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be (A) A primary reference group. (B) A tertiary reference group. (C) A secondary reference group. (D) A non-reference group. 17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase? (A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good (B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product (C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product (D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier 18.Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit? (A) Supplier (B) Gatekeeper (C) Decision maker (D) User 19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company’s decision-making unit? (A) User (B) Influencer (C) Gatekeeper (D) Buyer 20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System? (A) Marketing research (B) Decision support system (C) Production monitoring system (D) None of these SAIL: Sample Question Paper, Management Trainee (MT) Exam 1. If ‘JANTA’ is coded as ‘26’ and DEPOSIT as ‘52’. How can be the code number for ‘JANTA DEPOSIT SCHEME’? 1. 265276 2. 265213 3. 265287 4. 2652104 2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded? 1. NZESZR 2. LZESZT 3. LZCQZR 4. NBESBT 3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE 1. DGEF 2. EFGD 3. EGFD 4. GFDE 4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ? 1. Train : Car 2. Bruise : Fall 3. Television : Dial 4. Locusts : Holocaust 5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to 1. arms 2. face 3. body 4. nerves Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions. Statements: 1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards. 2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom. 3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo. 4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess. 6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom 1. Ram 2. Sham 3. Pappu 4. Sudhir 7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo 1. Sudhir 2. Pappu 3. Sham 4. Ram 8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo 1. Ram 2. Sham 3. Pappu 4. Sudhir 9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than Geeta but not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest? 1. Sudha 2. Mugdha 3. Madhubala 4. Data inadequate 10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by an odd number? 3 8 9 4 $ 5 9÷8 4 * 3 5 6 1. Three 2. Five 3. Four 4. Six $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer as: 1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given. 2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given. 3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. 4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given. 5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts. In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country’s economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to 11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy. 12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years. 13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India. Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit. (2) if only assumption II is implicit. (3) if either I or II is implicit. (4) if neither I nor II is implicit. (5) if both I and II are implicit. 14. STATEMENT: “Use chlorine tablets for drinking water.” A notice by municipal authority. ASSUMPTIONS: I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous. II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets. 15. STATEMENT: If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a great achievement in the field of education ASSUMPTIONS: I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools. II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly. 16. STATEMENT: Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news. ASSUMPTIONS: I. These types of news are always in headlines. II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital. 17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket? 1. 8 2. 6 3. 4 4. 2 18. mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n 1. mmmm 2. nnnn 3. mnmn 4. nmnm Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events ‘R’ and ‘S’. You have to read both the events ‘R’ and ‘S’ and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘R’ and Give answer as: 1. If ‘R’ is the effect and ‘S’ is its immediate principal cause. 2. If ‘R’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘S’ is its effect. 3. If ‘R’ is its effect but ‘S’ is not its immediate and principal cause. 4. If ‘S’ is an effect but ‘R’ is not its immediate and principal cause. 5. None of these 19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days. Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price. 20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months. Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer. Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part. 21. ‘DCBA’ is related to ‘ZYXW’ in the same way as ‘HGFE’ is related to 1. RSTU 2. VUTS 3. STVU 4. UVST 22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ? 1. 41 2. 65 3. 56 4. 60 23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to 1. Gown 2. Cap 3. Tie 4. Coat Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second letter of the so formed new word. 24. SPECULATION 1. A 2. D 3. L 4. P 25. Which does not cope with others in the following? 1. navigator 2. sailor 3. pilot 4. narrator Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer as 1. if only conclusion I follows 2. if only conclusion II follows 3. if either I or II follows 4. if neither I nor II follows 5. if both I and II follow 26. STATEMENTS: 1. No table is chair. 2. Some chairs are stools. I. Some tables are not stools. II. Some stools are not tables. 27. STATEMENTS: 1. All magazines are books. 2. No book is novel. CONCLUSIONS: I. No novel is book. II. No magazine is novel. 28. STATEMENTS: 1. Some tulips are roses. 2. Some roses are daffodils. I. Some tulips are roses. Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer as: 1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged? STATEMENT: I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it ‘O’ was staged. II. There is a gap of one day between N and O. 30. In a certain code language “Pit Lit Nit” means “Red Paint Shirt”. What is the code for “Paint”? STATEMENT: I. In that code language “Nit Lit Rit Bit” means “Wash Red Paint Now”. II. In that code language “Jit Cit Pit” means “Shirt is Dirty”. 31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ? 1. 24732 2. 23782 3. 27772 4. 27872 5. None of these 32. 1. 2. 5. 33. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ? 1. 10495 2. 10365 3. 10685 4. 10915 5. 10725 34. 1. 325 2. 75 3. 65 4. 13 5. 31 35. % of 1250 99 1. 784 2. 729 3. 576 4. 676 5. 841 36. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is 1. 99999 2. 99990 3. 99909 4. 99099 5. None of these 37. The ratio of 3.5 kg to 280 gm is 1. 2 : 25 2. 4 : 5 3. 25 : 2 4. 5 : 4 5. None of these 38. The compound ratio of 3 : 4, 8 : 15, 25 : 28 is 1. 3 : 28 2. 5 : 14 3. 14 : 5 4. 28 : 3 5. None of these 39. The least among the ratios 5 : 6, 7 : 8, 2 : 3, and 9 : 17 is 1. 5 : 6 2. 7 : 8 3. 2 : 3 4. 9 : 17 5. None of these 40. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of father is 1. 40 years 2. 45 years 3. 50 years 4. 55 years 5. None of these 41. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of 1. 1 : 2 2. 2 : 1 3. 5 : 3 4. 3 : 5 5. None of these 42. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs 850 is 1. Rs. 19.40 2. Rs. 9.80 3. Rs. 10.20 4. Rs. 10.80 5. None of these 43. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number 1. does not change 2. decreases by 2% 3. increases by 4% 4. decreases by 4% 5. None of these 44. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. The daily money receipts are then increased by 1. 8% 2. 10% 2. 12% 4. 50% 5. None of these 45. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%. To restore to its original, the new price must be increased by 2. 10 % 2. 11% 4. 5. 15% 46. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. The price of sugar per kilogram before reduction is 1. Rs. 4.50 2. Rs. 5 3. Rs. 5.50 4. Rs. 8 5. None of these 47. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years. The age of teacher is 1. 37 years 2. 39 years 3. 33 years 4. 47 years 5. None of these 48. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl. The age of the new girl is 1. 16.4 yrs 2. 10 yrs 3. 12 yrs 4. 16 yrs 5. 20 yrs 49. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1 cm. The average height of the set of 5 new student is 1. 146.2 cm 3. 147 cm 3. 145 cm 4. 146 cm 5. 148 cm 50. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure or all the nine. The total money spent by them was 1. Rs. 260 2. Rs. 262.50 3. Rs. 290 4. Rs. 292.50 5. None of these 1: 43344, 6: 22112, 11: 13555, 16: 54213, 21: 22134 26: 25444, 31: 32442, 36: 23241, 41: 23414, 46: 24244 Here are a few Solved Question Papers to prepare for Financial Awareness/ Economic Awareness section of banking recruitment exams like Federal Bank, Central Bank, Bank of India, SBI etc. These questions are based on Previous Year Question Paper of Banking Recruitment Exam and Current Affairs of the year 2009. 1. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India? (A) 1975 (B) 1947 (C) 1956 (D) 1960 2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission? (A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna (B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia (C) J. S. Mathur (D) Sushma Nath |
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