Đề thi thử đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D, A1 năm 2014 (P8)

Cập nhật đề thi thử môn Anh Khối D,A1 có đáp án năm 2014 (P8) trường THPT Lương Thế Vinh, Hà Nội lần 2.

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ANH KHỐI D,A1 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN NĂM 2014 - THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH, HÀ NỘI

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following sentences from 1 to 5.

Question 1:  Choosing a suitable job is really important to adolescents.

A. It is really important to choose a suitable job for adolescents.

B. It is of great importance for adolescents to choose a suitable job.

C. Choosing a suitable job for adolescents is a really important affair.

D. The choice of a suitable job for adolescents is really important.

Question 2:  That will put the cat among the pigeons.

A. That will cause a lot of trouble.

B. The cat will have to stay outside the house today.

C. Then we shall have as many cats as we have pigeons.

D. The cat will play with the pigeons.

Question 3:  Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars, but cars are the greatest contributor of air pollution.

A. It is cars that are the greatest contributor of air pollution although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier. 

B. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors of air pollution.                             

C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the pollution of air.                    

D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest contributors of air pollution.

Question 4:  The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

A. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.

B. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.

C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose: to make our lives better.

Question 5:  It is acknowledged that Vietnam had a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.

A. Vietnam is acknowledged to have completely controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.

B. Vietnam is acknowledged to have controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.

C. Vietnam was acknowledged to have had a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.

D. Vietnam is acknowledged to have a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.

 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 15.

ENGLISH SPELLING

Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down when Christian monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (6) _________. They used the 23 letters of Latin to write down the sounds of Anglo-Saxon (7) _________ as they heard it. However, English has a (8) __________ range of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too small, and so combinations of letters were needed to (9) ________ the different sounds. Inevitably, there were inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined.

With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put at risk. English survived, but the spelling of many English words changed to follow French (10) __________, and many French words were introduced into the language. The result was more irregularity.

When the printing press was (11) __________ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of English texts spoke other first languages. They made little effort to respect English spelling. Although one of the short-term (12) __________ of printing was to produce a number of variant spellings, in the long term it created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing words spelt in the same way. Rules were (13) __________, and dictionaries were put together which printers and writers could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and continued to change slowly- just as it still does now. Letters that were sounded in the Anglo-Saxon period, like the ‘k’ in ‘knife’, now became (14) ___________. Also, the pronunciation of vowels then had little in common with how they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn’t changed. No (15) __________, then, that it is often difficult to see the link between sound and spelling.

Question 6: A. centuries           B. times           C. ages                  D. years

Question 7: A. chat             B. communication       C. speech         D. discussion

Question 8: A. longer               B. deeper                 C. thicker       D. wider

Question 9: A. tell              B. express                C. explain         D. perform

Question 10: A. types             B. guides                 C. plans       D. patterns

Question 11: A. discovered         B. made up        C. taken in        D. invented

Question 12: A. conclusions        B. actions           C. meanings      D. effects

Question 13: A. filled in         B. drawn up        C. handed out       D. got across

Question 14: A. silent         B. dumb             C. quiet          D. speechless

Question 15: A. problem        B. mention        C. wonder        D. idea

 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet that is best made from the given prompts in the following sentences from 16 to 20.

Question 16:  appearance/ steamboats and railroads/ reduce/ transportation cost/ and have effects/ conditions/ workers.

A. Appearance of the steamboats and the railroads have reduced transportation cost and had effects in conditions of workers.

B. The appearance of the steamboats and railroads have reduced transportation cost and had effects on conditions of workers.

C. The appearance of steamboats and railroads had reduced transportation cost and had effects on conditions of workers.

D. The appearance of steamboats and railroads reduced transportation cost and had effects on the conditions of workers.

Question 17: He/ like/ nothing/ better/ sit/ read/ science books/ father’s/ library.

A. He liked nothing better than to sit to read science books in his father’s library.

B. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in his father’s library.

C. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in father’s library.

D. He liked nothing better than sitting and read science books in his father’s library.

Question 18:  new/machinery/ put in/ this year/ with a view/ increase output.

A. New machinery have been put in this year with a view to increase output.

B. New machinery has put in this year with a view to increasing output.

C. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increase output.

D. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increasing output.

Question 19:  James Watt/ invention/ steam/ engine/ famous/ world/ Scottish scientist.

A. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world was Scottish scientist.

B. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world, was a Scottish scientist.

C. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous round the world was a Scottish scientist.

D. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous all the world, is a Scottish scientist.

Question 20: scientists/ proved/ there/ close link/ smoking/ lung diseases/ such as/ cough/ tuberculosis/ and/ worst/ all/ fatal cancer.

A. Scientists have proved that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as cough and tuberculosis and the worst of all is fatal cancer.         

B. Scientists have proved that there has been a close link of smoking with lung diseases, such as cough and tuberculosis and the worst of all, fatal cancer.

C. Scientists proved that there has been a close link from smoking to lung diseases, such as from cough to tuberculosis and worst of all, fatal cancer.                  

D. Scientists have been proving that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as cough and tuberculosis and worst of all is fatal cancer.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 21 to 23. 

Question 21: Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence, the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.

A. back and forth         B. to and fro        C. more or less       D. side by side

Question 22: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting his foot in his mouth.

A. speaking indirectly                                B. making a mistake

C. doing things in the wrong order                 D. saying embarrassing things

Question 23: To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money.

A. resolve          B. medicate          C. understand                  D. renew

 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

 Question 24: In 1864, twelve nations signed the first Geneva Convention, __________ down rules for the treatment and protection of the wounded.

A. lying           B. lied                     C. laying                       D. laid

Question 25: I can’t see us beating them at tennis this year. We are so out of _________.

A. step           B. practice           C. fitness                         D. breath

Question 26: I was talking to my aunt when suddenly my cousin George ________ in on our conversation.

A. went          B. interrupted        C. intervened                   D. broke

Question 27: We wish that you __________ such a lot of work, because we know that you would have enjoyed the party.

A. hadn’t                  B. wouldn’t have             C. didn’t have       D. hadn’t had

Question 28: He trained his muscles by __________ weightlifting and bodybuilding.

A. doing                 B. playing                        C. going             D. taking

Question 29: I was glad when he said that his car was__________.

A. for me use            B. at my use               C. for my use           D. at my disposal

Question 30: It’s no use getting __________ him. He won’t change his mind.

A. on                    B. across          C. off                               D. around

Question 31: “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” – “ __________.”

A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t                    B. That’s a good idea

C. You’re welcome                        D. Oh, I didn’t realize it

Question 32: You must obey the speed limits on public roads. They are designed to keep you safe. You shouldn’t exceed the speed limit __________ you are an experienced race car driver.

A. only if                    B. even if             C. provided that           D. if

Question 33: The City Planning Department proposed that the new highway__________ in the fiscal year 2015.

A. would be built            B. be built         C. is to be built            D. will be built

Question 34: “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon” - “Good luck! I’ll keep my _______crossed for you.”

A. fingers                         B. legs                  C. arms             D. hands

Question 35: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is stressed differently from the others.

A. overlook                 B. influential               C. furniture                   D. oceanic

Question 36: He blamed __________ me __________not explaining the lesson __________her carefully.

A. on/for/to             B. ø/ about/ for                C. for/ on/ for              D. ø/ for/ to

Question 37: “Haven’t you put an ad in the paper yet?” – “__________ .”

A. I can get a paper for you                                     B. I’m not sure

C. I’m with you there                                       D. I will, first thing in the morning

Question 38: __________, we missed our plane.

A. As the train being late                                         B. The train was late

C. The train being late                                             D. To be late

Question 39: Beyond the mountains ___________ where you will live.

A. does the town lie        B. lies the town       C. which the town lies    D. the town lies

Question 40: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that does not contain a silent letter.

A. rhino                      B. trade                     C. protect           D. receipt

Question 41: Many citizens say that they are __________ of the political policies of the candidates in a local election.

A. ignoring                B. ignorance               C. ignorant               D. ignorantly

Question 42: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is primarily stressed on the third syllable.

A. cooperation       B. supervise              C. reinforce        D. committee

Question 43: __________ you give the answer, ___________.

A. The quicker – the better you can get marks

B. The more quickly – the better marks you can get

C. More quickly – better marks you can get

D. The quickest – the best marks you can get

Question 44: Tony and Nancy always kiss and make __________ after their argument.

A. up with                     B. clear                          C. up           D. out

Question 45: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is not stressed on the first syllable.

A. purchase              B. ignorant                   C. tuition              D. vigorous

Question 46: The player was ejected after committing 5 personal __________.

A. faults                   B. mistakes                      C. errors             D. fouls

Question 47: “Do you think it’s bad to keep all the candy to yourself?”

– “___________ .”

A. I’m sorry. Sometimes I’m too aggressive

B. You’re right. I’m a bit jealous

C. You are absolutely right.I’m crazy about candy

D. I’m sorry. I should not be so selfish

Question 48: Which of the following words is not an acronym?

A. CANCER                   B. CARE                         C. LASER                       D. AIDS

Question 49: At the end of the nineteenth century, Alfred Binet developed a test for measuring intelligence ________ served as the basis of modern IQ tests.

A. it has                           B. has            C. which has                    D. and

Question 50: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that contains a consonant /θ/.

A. diphthong                 B. southern              C. breathing         D. smooth

Question 51: Hundreds came to __________ their last respects to the dead president.

A. pay                         B. express                  C. have         D. indicate

Question 52: International Games themselves can help to solve the problem of ___________ among countries.

A. takeoffs                   B. kickoffs             C. standoffs      D. warm-ups

Question 53: One of the conservation efforts is the development of wildlife__________.

A. reserves         B. reverses        C. conserves                 D. reservoirs

 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 54 to 55.

 Question 54:  Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.

A. real                 B. natural          C. true                          D. genuine

Question 55:  Mutualism is a type of symbiosis that occurs when two unlike organisms live together in a state that is mutually beneficial.

A. alike                  B. likely              C. similar          D. dislike

 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65.

DESERTIFICATION

Desertification is the degradation of once-productive land into unproductive or poorly productive land. Since the first great urban-agricultural centers in Mesopotamia nearly 6,000 years ago, human activity has had a destructive impact on soil quality, leading to gradual desertification in virtually every area of the world.

  It is a common misconception that desertification is caused by droughts. Although drought does make land more vulnerable, well-managed land can survive droughts and recover, even in arid regions. Another mistaken belief is that the process occurs only along the edges of deserts. In fact, it may take place in any arid or semiarid region, especially where poor land management is practised. Most vulnerable, however, are the transitional zones between deserts and arable land; wherever human activity leads to land abuse in these fragile marginal areas, soil destruction is inevitable.

[1] Agriculture and overgrazing are the two major sources of desertification. [2] Large-scale farming requires extensive irrigation, which ultimately destroys lands by depleting its nutrients and leaching minerals into the topsoil. [3] Grazing is especially destructive to land because , in addition to depleting cover vegetation, herds of grazing mammals also trample the fine organic particles of the topsoil, leading to soil compaction and erosion. [4] It takes about 500 years for the earth to build up 3 centimeters of topsoil. However, cattle ranching and agriculture can deplete as much as 2 to 3 centimeters of topsoil every 25 years- 60 to 80 times faster than it can be replaced by nature.

 Salination is a type of land degradation that involves an increase in the salt content of the soil. This usually occurs as a result of improper irrigation practices. The greatest Mesopotamian empires- Sumer, Akkad and Babylon- were built on the surplus of the enormously productive soil of the ancient Tigris-Euphrates alluvial plain. After nearly a thousand years of intensive cultivation, land quality was in evident decline. In response, around 2800 BC the Sumerians began digging the huge Tigris-Euphrates canal system to irrigate the exhausted soil. A temporary gain in crop yield was achieved in this way, but over-irrigation was to have serious and unforeseen consequences. From as early as 2400 BC we find Sumerian documents referring to salinization as a soil problem. It is believed that the fall of the Akkadian Empire around 2150 BC may have been due to a catastrophic failure in land productivity; the soil was literally turned into salt. Even today, four thousand years later, vast tracks of salinized land between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers still resemble rock-hard fields of snow.

  Soil erosion is another form of desertification. It is a self-reinforcing process; once the cycle of degradation begins, conditions are set for continual deterioration. As the vegetative cover begins to disappear, soil becomes more vulnerable to raindrop impact. Water runs off instead of soaking in to provide moisture for plans. This further diminishes plan cover by leaching away nutrients from the soil. As soil quality declines and runoff is increased, floods become more frequent and more severe. Flooding washes away topsoil, the thin, rich, uppermost layer of the earth’s soil, and leaves finer underlying particles more vulnerable to wind erosion. Topsoil contains the earth’s greatest concentration of organic matter and microorganisms, and is where most of the earth’s land-based biological activity occurs. Without this fragile coat of nutrient-laden material, plan life cannot exist. An extreme case of its erosion is found in the Sahel, a transitional zone between the Sahara Desert and the tropical African rain forests; home to some 56 million people. Overpopulation and overgrazing have opened the hyperarid land to wind erosion, which is stripping away the protective margin of the Sahel, and causing the desert to grow at an alarming rate. Between 1950 and 1975, the Sahara Desert spread 100 kilometers southward through the Sahel.

 Question 56:  Which of the following statements is true about desertification?

A. It has a history as long as that of civilization.   

B. It was just as serious in the past as it is today.

C. It is a fairly recent problem.                               

D. Ancient societies managed the problem well.

Question 57:  The word “arable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. cultivatable               B. dry           C. settled           D. populated

Question 58:  According to the passage, many people’s understanding of desertification is incorrect because

A. they do not think of it as a serious problem

B. they see it as being reversible

C. they do not see it as being caused by human activity

D. they think of it as a very slow process

Question 59:  Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

A. Most of the vulnerable areas are in transition from desert to arable land; a process that because of human activity and the delicate nature of these areas, always leads to soil loss.

B. Human activity in the transition areas is vulnerable because of the fragile nature of these areas that are neither desert nor arable land because they have suffered damage to the soil

C. Soil loss in the transitional zones is especially severe where human activity is damaging the environment through agriculture which is causing the loss of soil.

D. It is the areas that exist between the deserts and the land that is usable for agriculture that are most at risk because they are susceptible to poor land management methods from human activity which will always result in the loss of soil.

Question 60:  The word “compaction” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. fragmentation             B. depletion      C. disruption       D. compression

Question 61:  According to the passage, agriculture furthers desertification through which of the following activities

A. The repetitive planting of the same crops           B. Irrigation

C. The stripping away of native vegetation            D. Over fertilization

Question 62:  The word “degradation” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

A. rejuvenation        B. deterioration      C. contribution      D. consumption

Question 63:  Paragraph 4 of the passage serves mainly to do which of the following?

A. Show the progress of desertification down through history

B. Propose a method for dealing with the desertification problem.

C. Describe one process that leads to desertification

D. Describe the main cause of desertification in one particular area

Question 64:  The word “leaching” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to

A. washing           B. depositing         C. concentrating        D. dispersing

Question 65:  Look at numbers [1], [2], [3], [4] in paragraph 3 of the passage. Where would the following sentence best fit?

Each furthers the process dramatically, but they act in quite different ways

A. [1]                B. [2]                           C. [4]             D. [3]

 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.

Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.

The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.

The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.

The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement that made Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet. 

Question 66:  The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s

A. childhood                               B. work as an astronomer

C. invention of the diving bell                       D. many different interests

Question 67:  Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it

A. was bigger                                           B. provided more air

C. weighed less                                D. could rise more quickly

Question 68:  The expression “ran low” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. sank to the bottom                              B. was almost exhausted

C. had been replenished                   D. move slowly

Question 69:  How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?

A. Just a few seconds                                B. Only a few minutes   

C. For days on end                            D. For hours at a time

Question 70:  It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell

A. was completely enclosed         B. was wider at the top than at the bottom

C. could hold more than one diver             D. was made of tarred wood

Question 71:  The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by

A. in the future    B. upside down     C. as they wanted   D. with great speed

Question 72:  It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it would

A. float    B. get wet        C. trap the divers         D. suffocate the divers

Question 73:  Where in the passage does the author indicate how air traveled from the barrel to the bell?

A. Lines 8-10         B. Lines 11-13        C. Lines 17-18             D. line 20

Question 74:  In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Halley’s?

A. The first paragraph                                              B. The second paragraph

C. The third paragraph                                            D. The fourth paragraph

Question 75:  This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on

A. astronomy          B. physiology       C. oceanography      D. recreation

 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 76 to 80.

 Question 76:  One another surprising method of forest conservation is controlled cutting of trees.

A. surprising       B. conservation is     C. controlled cutting       D. One another

Question 77: There are many frequently mentioned reasons why one out of four arrests involve a juvenile.

A. frequently          B. mentioned     C. involve                 D. four arrests

Question 78:  Perhaps the most welcoming and friendly of the park’s wild places is the live oak forest that surrounds the district’s alone visitors’ center in Gulf Breeze.

A. alone              B. welcoming        C. friendly                       D. live

Question 79:  On June 30, 1992, international timekeepers in Paris were added an extra second to the day.

A. on               B. second            C. were added                 D. the day

Question 80:  In 1863 and 1864, the U.S. Congress passed the National Banks Acts, which set up a system of privately owned banks chartered by a federal government.

A. chartered                                                             B. privately owned banks

C. a federal government                                          D. the National Banks Acts

 

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ANH KHỐI D,A1 NĂM 2014 - THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH, HÀ NỘI

1B

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Viết bình luận: Đề thi thử đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D, A1 năm 2014 (P8)

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